Comments on: Defending Purgatory

By: Funky Dung

Funky Dung — Mon, 02 Oct 2006 00:22:39 +0000

The nominative satan (meaning "adversary" or "accuser"), and the Arabic shaitan, derives from a Northwest Semitic root šṭn, meaning "to be hostile", "to accuse".[1] In the New Testament, Satan is a proper name, and is used to refer to a supernatural entity who appears in several passages.

The most common synonym for Satan, "the Devil", entered Modern English from Middle English devel, from Old English dēofol, from Latin diabolus, from Late Greek diabolos, from Greek, "slanderer", from diaballein, "to slander" : dia-, dia- + ballein, "to hurl"[2]. In Greek, the term diabolos (Διάβολος, "slanderer"), carries more negative connotations than the Hebrew satan (שָׂטָן, "accuser", "obstructer").[3]

By: Tom Smith

Tom Smith — Fri, 29 Sep 2006 20:44:31 +0000

If that's the case, then "Satan" doesn't mean "adversary," it means "accuser."

By: Funky Dung

Funky Dung — Fri, 29 Sep 2006 02:03:54 +0000

That "narrow" definition is, AFAIK, the accurate one based on the meaning of the Hebrew word.

By: Tom Smith

Tom Smith — Thu, 28 Sep 2006 23:43:25 +0000

When you think of the word "adversary," is the first thing you think of really a courtroom accuser?

My point is that "accuser" is merely one of many definitions of "adversary." More broadly speaking, "adversary" refers to one's opponent, be he an accuser or not.

It seems silly to assume that the meaning of the word "Satan" is "accuser" merely because that is one possible (and very narrow) definition of the word.

By: Funky Dung

Funky Dung — Thu, 28 Sep 2006 20:49:04 +0000

"the devil doesn’t accuse us"

Are you aware that "satan" means "adversary", i.e., a plaintiff/accuser in a court of law? C.f. "who will accuse me?" in the suffering servant psalms in Isaiah.

By: Tom Smith

Tom Smith — Tue, 30 Nov 1999 00:00:00 +0000

Since no one leaves Hell, no matter how many pennies they pay, I'd say that it represents Purgatory.

By: dlw

dlw — Tue, 30 Nov 1999 00:00:00 +0000

Is there anything in the cotext of the passage to sugest Jesus is talking about the afterlife?

I thought the basis for Purgatory was from Deuterocanonical sources?

dlw

By: Tom Smith

Tom Smith — Tue, 30 Nov 1999 00:00:00 +0000

Actually, upon reading the post again (as well as dlw's comment), I don't actually think that there's any reason to believe that the text refers to the afterlife, though I may be wrong.

dlw,
the basis for our belief in Purgatory, like everything we believe, is founded upon Tradition as supported by Scripture and defended by Magisterium. One of the benefits of this arrangement is that the defining of religious doctrine does not become an exercise in archaeology, as it is with those who limit themselves to just one of the three (Protestants with the Scriptures, and Orthodox with Tradition). The commonly cited Purgatory Scripture references are from, I believe, 2 Maccabees.

By: Funky Dung

Funky Dung — Tue, 30 Nov 1999 00:00:00 +0000

Um…it seems fairly clear to me that God is the judge and the prison sentence relates to eternal judgment. My only question was whether the debt to be paid was unpayable (like 100,000 talents) and thus referring to hell or payable in time and thus referring to purgation. C.f. the parable of the unforgiving servant.

By: Tom Smith

Tom Smith — Tue, 30 Nov 1999 00:00:00 +0000

But who would the accuser be?